Chemistry MCQs for NEET — Practice Questions with Answers

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Paramagnetism primarily arises from which of the following features of an atom or ion?

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Explanation

The text states (The d - and f - Block Elements, page 102), "Paramagnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons, each such electron having a magnetic moment associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum." and (MAGNETISM_AND_MATTER) "The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) of a paramagnetic material have a net magnetic moment of their own."

Which of the following elements, when in a given oxidation state, would you expect to exhibit paramagnetic behavior based on the general characteristics of transition elements?

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Explanation

The context states: 'The d orbitals of the transition elements protrude to the periphery of an atom more than the other orbitals (i.e., s and p), hence, they are more influenced by the surroundings as well as affect the atoms or molecules surrounding them. In some respects, ions of a given $d^n$ configuration ($n = 1 – 9$) have similar magnetic and electronic properties. With partly filled d orbitals these elements exhibit certain characteristic properties such as display of a variety of oxidation states, formation of coloured ions and entering into complex formation with a variety of ligands. The transition metals and their compounds also exhibit catalytic property and paramagnetic behaviour.' Zn and Cd are not considered transition elements because their d-orbitals are completely filled in the ground state and common oxidation states. Sc (Scandium) in its common $+3$ oxidation state ($3d^0$) has no unpaired electrons. $Cu^{2+}$ has a $3d^9$ configuration, meaning it has one unpaired electron, making it paramagnetic.

Calculate the 'spin-only' magnetic moment for a transition metal ion with 3 unpaired electrons.

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Explanation

The 'spin-only' formula for magnetic moment is $\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)}$ BM, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. For $n=3$, $\mu = \sqrt{3(3+2)} = \sqrt{3 \times 5} = \sqrt{15} \approx 3.87$ BM. This is also directly given in 'Table 4.7: Calculated and Observed Magnetic Moments (BM)' for $V^{2+}$ (3d^3).

Which of the following substances is explicitly mentioned as diamagnetic in the provided text?

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Explanation

The text (MAGNETISM_AND_MATTER, page 148) states: 'Some diamagnetic materials are bismuth, copper, lead, silicon, nitrogen (at STP), water and sodium chloride.'

In the compounds of the first series of transition metals, how is the orbital angular momentum's contribution to the magnetic moment typically considered?

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Explanation

The text states (The d - and f - Block Elements, page 102), 'For the compounds of the first series of transition metals, the contribution of the orbital angular momentum is effectively quenched and hence is of no significance. For these, the magnetic moment is determined by the number of unpaired electrons and is calculated by using the ‘spin-only’ formula...'

Ferromagnetism is described as an extreme form of which magnetic property?

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Explanation

The text (The d - and f - Block Elements, page 102) clearly states, 'attracted very strongly are said to be ferromagnetic. In fact, ferromagnetism is an extreme form of paramagnetism.'

Why is pure scandium ($Z=21$) specifically mentioned as a transition element, while zinc ($Z=30$) is not, based on their d-orbital configuration?

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Explanation

The context (The d - and f - Block Elements, page 91) directly addresses this: 'The electronic configurations of outer orbitals of Zn, Cd, Hg and Cn are represented by the general formula $(n-1)d^{10}ns^2$. The orbitals in these elements are completely filled in the ground state as well as in their common oxidation states. Therefore, they are not regarded as transition elements.' And further, 'On the basis of incompletely filled 3d orbitals in case of scandium atom in its ground state ($3d^1$).'

Consider the ions $Ti^{3+}$ and $V^{2+}$. Based on the 'spin-only' formula, which of the following statements about their magnetic moments is correct?

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Explanation

From Table 4.7, $Ti^{3+}$ has a $3d^1$ configuration with 1 unpaired electron, leading to a calculated magnetic moment of $1.73$ BM. $V^{2+}$ has a $3d^3$ configuration with 3 unpaired electrons, leading to a calculated magnetic moment of $3.87$ BM. Therefore, $V^{2+}$ has a higher magnetic moment than $Ti^{3+}$.

A superconductor is described as a 'perfect diamagnet'. What is the value of its magnetic susceptibility ($\chi$) and relative magnetic permeability ($\mu_r$)?

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Explanation

The text (MAGNETISM_AND_MATTER, page 148, and page 152 summary point 5) explicitly states for a superconductor: '$\chi = -1$ and $\mu_r = 0$.'

Which of the following descriptions accurately characterizes the magnetic field inside a diamagnetic material when placed in an external magnetic field?

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Explanation

The context (MAGNETISM_AND_MATTER, Figure 5.7 and accompanying text on page 147) states: 'Figure 5.7(a) shows a bar of diamagnetic material placed in an external magnetic field. The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field inside the material is reduced.'

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