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The true value of angle of dip at a place is $60^ \circ $ , the apparent dip in a plane inclined at an angle of $ 30^ \circ $ with magnetic meridian is.

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Explanation

$ tan \phi ' = { tan \phi \over cos \beta } $ $where \phi' = Apparent angle of dip $ $ = { tan 60 ^ \circ \over cos 60 ^ \circ } $ $ \phi = True angle of dip $ $ tan \phi' = 2 $ $ \beta = Angle made by vertical plane with magnetic meridian $ $ \phi' = tan^{-1} (2) $

A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian whenit shows an angle of dip at a place. The dip circle is roated through an angle x in the horizontal plane and then it shows an angle of dip $ \theta ' $ . Then $ { tan \theta' \over tan \theta } $

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Explanation

The tangent of the angle of dip ($\theta$) initially is given as $\tan \theta$. When the dip circle is rotated by an angle $x$ in the horizontal plane, the new angle of dip is $\theta'$. According to the trigonometric relationship in spherical coordinates, the new tangent of the angle of dip can be represented as $\tan \theta' = \frac{\tan \theta}{\cos x}$. Therefore, $\frac{\tan \theta'}{\tan \theta} = \frac{1}{\cos x}$.

A dip needle vibrates in the vertical plane perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. The time period of vibration is found to be 2 sec. The same needle is then allowed to vibrate in the horizontal plane and the time period is again found to be 2 sec. Then the angle of dip is

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Explanation

$ in vertical plane T = \sqrt [2 \pi] { I \over MB_V} .......(1)$ $ in horizontal plane T = \sqrt [2 \pi] { I \over MB_H} ........(2)$ but in both the cause T = 2 sec $ \sqrt { I \over MB_V } = \sqrt { I \over MB_H} $ $ { 1 \over B_V} = { 1 \over B_H} $ $ 1 = { B_V \over B_H } $ $ 1 = tan \phi $ $ \phi = 45 ^ \circ $

Two identical short bar magnets, each having magnetic moment M are placed a distance of 2d apart with axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a point midway between them is.

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Explanation

$ B_{ 1 axis } = { \mu_o \over 4 \pi } { 2M \over d^3 } ........(1) $ $B_{ 2 equator } = { \mu_o \over 4 \pi } { M \over d^3 }.......(2) $ At point P $ B_{ resultant} = \sqrt { B_1^2 + B_2 ^2 } $ $ = \sqrt 5 { \mu_o \over 4 \pi } { M \over d^3 } $

The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at $ - 73 \circ C $ is 0.0060, then its value at $-173 ^ \circ $ C will be

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Explanation

$ Magentic suspectibility x_m \alpha { 1 \over T } $ $ { x_{m2} \over x_{m1}} = { T_1 \over T_2 } $ $ { x_{m2} \over 0.0060} = { 273 - 73 \over 273 - 173 } $ $ { X_{m2} \over 0.0060} = {200 \over 100 } $ $ X_{m2} = 0.0120 $

Needles $ N_1, N_2 and N_3 $ are made of a ferrow magnetic, a paramagnetic and a dia-magnetic substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will

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Explanation

Ferro magnetic substances, magnetised strongly in the direction of magnetic field. Para magnetic substances magnetised weaklyin the direction of magnetic field. Diamagnetic substances is magnetised weaklyin opposite direction of magnetic field.

Susceptibility of one material at 300 k is $1.2 \times 10^{-5} $ . The temperature at which susceptibilitywill be $ 1.8 \times 10^{-5} $ is …..kelvin.

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Explanation

$ {x_{m2} \over x_{m1} }= { T_1 \over T_2 } $ $ { 1.8 \times 10^{-5} \over 1.2 \times 10^{-5} } = { 300 \over T_2 } $ $ T_2 = 200 Kelvin $

Due to a small magnet, intensity at a distance x in the end on position is 9 Gauss. what will be the intensity at a distance x/2 on broad side on position

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Explanation

$ Baxis = { 2M \over x^3 } = 9 (In CGS ) $ $ = { M \over x^3 } = { 9 \over 2 } $ $ B_{equator} = { M \over \left( x \over 2 \right)^3} $ $ = 8 \left( { M \over x^3 } \right) $ $ = 8 \left( 9 \over 2 \right) $ $ = 36 Gauss $

A domain in a ferro magnetic substance is in the form of a cube of side length $ 1 \mu m$. If it contains $ 8 \times 10^{10} $ atoms and each atomic dipole has a dipole moment of $ 9 \times 10^{-24} A.m^2$ then magnetization of the domain is ............. A.m-1.

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Explanation

$ Volume of the domain = ( 1 \times 10^{-6 })^3 m^3 = 10^{-18} m^3 $ $ \therefore New dipole moment mnet = Nm $ $ = 8 \times 10^{10} \times 9 \times 10^{-24} $ $ = 72 \times 10^{-14} A.m^2 $ $ \therefore Magnetization M = { m_{net} \over vol} $ $ = { 72 \times 10^{-14} \over 10^{-18 }}{A.m^2 \over m^3 } $ $ = 72 \times 10^{+4} $ $ = 7.2 \times 10^5 Amp.meter^{-1} $

The magnetic susceptibility is negative for

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Explanation

Diamagentic materials

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