D & F Block Elements MCQs for NEET — Chemistry Questions with Answers

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Why does Oxygen (O) have a lower first ionization enthalpy than Nitrogen (N)?

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Explanation

The NCERT explains, 'Another “anomaly” is the smaller first ionization enthalpy of oxygen compared to nitrogen. This arises because in the nitrogen atom, three 2p-electrons reside in different atomic orbitals (Hund’s rule) whereas in the oxygen atom, two of the four 2p-electrons must occupy the same 2p-orbital resulting in an increased electron-electron repulsion. Consequently, it is easier to remove the fourth 2p-electron from oxygen than it is, to remove one of the three 2p-electrons from nitrogen.'

Consider the elements Na, Mg, and Al from the third period. Based on general trends and exceptions, how would the first ionization enthalpy of Al compare to Mg?

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Explanation

The NCERT problem 3.6 directly addresses this: 'The first ionization enthalpy ($\Delta_i H$) values of the third period elements, Na, Mg and Si are respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol⁻¹. Predict whether the first $\Delta_i H$ value for Al will be more close to 575 or 760 kJ mol⁻¹ ? Justify your answer.' The solution provided is: 'It will be more close to 575 kJ mol⁻¹. The value for Al should be lower than that of Mg because of effective shielding of 3p electrons from the nucleus by 3s-electrons.'

What is the primary reason for the decrease in ionization energies being less rapid along the 3d series compared to the increase in nuclear charge?

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Explanation

The NCERT states, 'nuclear charge increases from scandium to zinc but electrons are added to the orbital of inner subshell, i.e., 3d orbitals. These 3d electrons shield the 4s electrons from the increasing nuclear charge somewhat more effectively than the outer shell electrons can shield one another. Therefore, the atomic radii decrease less rapidly. Thus, ionization energies increase only slightly along the 3d series.'

Which of the following configurations, relevant to transition metal ions, is associated with a break in the increasing trend of ionization enthalpy due to enhanced stability?

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Explanation

The NCERT explicitly states, 'However, the trend of steady increase in second and third ionisation enthalpy breaks for the formation of Mn$^{2+}$ and Fe$^{3+}$ respectively. In both the cases, ions have d$^{5}$ configuration.' While d$^{10}$ and d$^{0}$ are stable, the context specifically mentions the d$^{5}$ configuration of Mn$^{2+}$ causing a 'break' in the steady increasing trend of ionization enthalpy. The stability of Sc$^{3+}$ (d$^{0}$) means its value for the $E°(M^{3+}/M^{2+})$ reduction potential is low, reflecting its stability, but not described as an anomaly in the general trend of increasing ionization enthalpies at that point.

Why is the first ionization enthalpy of Lithium (Li) lower than Boron (B) and Beryllium (Be)?

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Explanation

Lithium is an alkali metal (minima on the graph in Fig. 3.5), known for its low ionization enthalpy due to its larger atomic radius, a single loosely bound valence electron in the outermost s-orbital, and the associated high reactivity. All factors contribute to its lower ionization enthalpy compared to its period neighbors.

Which of the following elements has the most negative standard electrode potential for the M$^{2+}$/M couple among the first-row transition elements, indicating a strong tendency to be oxidized?

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Explanation

Referring to Table 4.4 and 4.2, the standard electrode potential (E$^{\text{o}}$) for the reduction of M$^{2+}$ to M are: Ti (-1.63 V), V (-1.18 V), Cr (-0.90 V), Mn (-1.18 V), Fe (-0.44 V), Co (-0.28 V), Ni (-0.25 V), Cu (+0.34 V), Zn (-0.76 V). Titanium has the most negative E$^{\text{o}}$ value of -1.63 V, indicating the strongest tendency to get oxidized (i.e., its M$^{2+}$ ion is hardest to reduce).

The exceptionally high positive standard electrode potential for the M$^{3+}$/M$^{2+}$ couple of Co ($+1.81$ V in Appendix III or $+1.97$ V in Table 4.2) suggests that:

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Explanation

A high positive standard electrode potential for the reduction of M$^{3+}$ to M$^{2+}$ (like Co$^{3+}$ + e$^{-}$ $\to$ Co$^{2+}$ with E$^{\text{o}}$ = +1.81 V or +1.97 V) indicates that the M$^{3+}$ ion has a strong tendency to gain an electron and be reduced. Therefore, Co$^{3+}$ acts as a strong oxidizing agent.

Which of the following statements correctly explains the relatively low E$^{\text{o}}$ (M$^{3+}$/M$^{2+}$) value for Vanadium (V) compared to Manganese (Mn)?

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Explanation

According to the text, 'The comparatively low value for V is related to the stability of V$^{2+}$ (half-filled t$_{2g}$ level, Unit 5).' A low E$^{\text{o}}$ for M$^{3+}$/M$^{2+}$ means that M$^{2+}$ is relatively stable and does not readily get oxidized to M$^{3+}$, or M$^{3+}$ is easily reduced to M$^{2+}$. In this case, the stability of V$^{2+}$ makes it less prone to oxidation to V$^{3+}$. (V$^{2+}$ is d$^3$ in octahedral field, having t$_{2g}^3$ configuration, which is a half-filled t$_{2g}$ level - this needs knowledge from Unit 5 as mentioned in NCERT).

The exceptionally high E$^{\text{o}}$ (M$^{3+}$/M$^{2+}$) value for Zinc (Zn) is attributed to:

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Explanation

The context states: 'The highest value for Zn is due to the removal of an electron from the stable d$^{10}$ configuration of Zn$^{2+}$'. This implies that oxidizing Zn$^{2+}$ (d$^{10}$) to Zn$^{3+}$ is very difficult, leading to a very high positive reduction potential for Zn$^{3+}$/Zn$^{2+}$ (if it were to exist), or more practically, it means Zn$^{2+}$ is exceedingly stable. The M$^{3+}$/M$^{2+}$ potential is actually listed in Table 4.2 for transition elements, and Zn is not listed here, but the statement refers to the difficulty of removing an electron from stable Zn$^{2+}$ which would correspond to a very high positive reduction potential if Zn$^{3+}$ were involved.

Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the relatively negative E$^{\text{o}}$ (M$^{2+}$/M) value for nickel (Ni)?

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Explanation

The text explicitly states: 'whereas E$^{\text{o}}$ for Ni is related to the highest negative $\Delta_{\text{hyd}}H^{\text{o}}$'. A highly negative hydration enthalpy helps stabilize the M$^{2+}$ ion in solution, making the overall reduction process from M$^{2+}$ to M less favorable, contributing to a more negative E$^{\text{o}}$.

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